While the word "intent" is in the bunt definition, I guess, why does the outcome matter? This is really easy for me, as somebody else put it. If the same exact circumstance had been a fair ball off Lorenzen's bat...what would have been the outcome? A putout somewhere, I imagine. There's no way the umpire crew would gather around and say, "well, did he intend to bunt it?" It's only after the foul determination, does somehow, "intent" come into play? That's a bunch of baloney. If the intent is to no longer bunt, then get the bat out of the area of which it will make contact with the ball. Lorenzen didn't. He made that bat make contact with that ball from a bunted position, that he intentionally placed himself into and did not get out of. The fact that the same situation with a ball that lands fair and ends fair would be a different outcome, without intent mattering, tells me that intent doesn't matter simply because it landed foul.