In your scenario, the force outs would supercede the run scoring and the game would continue. In the article, the ump said: ""First of all, they didn't play the ball. The infielders were leaving the infield. The runner from third touched the plate and the runner from the plate touched first." Essentially, the defense conceded on the play and since the runner touched home and the batter touched first, the rule was satisfied. If I was a runner, I would have still touched the next base, that part is a little weird. Edit: spelling