I'm pretty sure the answer to this is obvious, but I just want to confirm. Let's say there is an infield fly rule situation. The batter hits an infield pop up that is right above the 1st base line. The umpire signals for the infield fly rule, not know if the ball will land foul or fair. For whatever reason (bad communication, error, sun, wind, etc) the ball falls untouched just on the foul side of the foul line (and stays in foul territory). Now, normally when the umpire signals for an infield fly, the batter is automatically out. However, maybe I'm wrong, but I'm assuming that the batter can't be out on a ball that falls in foul territory and if the pop up was clearly in foul territory to begin with the umpire would not have called for an infield fly rule (since there would really be no need to call it). I'm guessing that the ruling on this would be that the infield fly that was called by the ump would be reversed and it would just be ruled a foul ball and the batter would continue to bat (and not be out). Correct?