After reading the Missouri law as posted here I see it this way. The law seems to say that even if the bartender did serve Hancock while he was visibly intoxicated, the family has no ability to bring a suit against the bartender or the bar as long as Hancock was not forced to get intoxicated. It looks like the bartender might get fined or procecuted by the state, but no lawsuit. This is the part I am refering to.