I was watching the Brewers the other night with some of my friends (who like baseball, but aren't exactly the diehard that I am). We were discussing unearned runs and how they are calculated. I got them to understand the basic rules: if a guy reaches on an error and he scores, it doesn't cout against the pitcher, anything after 2 outs with an error in the inning is unearned, etc. They were fine with this. One of them then asked me a question that I actually didn't have a legitimate answer for....If an error is made by the pitcher and that runner scores, why is it an unearned run? The pitcher was the one that made the error, so it's HIS fault that runner is on base...meaning he "earned" the run for himself. I know that it doesn't, as anybody reaching on an error would be an earned run, regardless of who made it...but why is that exactly? If the pitcher makes the error, it's their fault the runner is on base to begin with. Logically, I would think that would be an earned run, but it's not. Any thoughts on this? I need to give these guys something when I see them tonight, they've been needling me on it for a few days now.